Question by TheWatchtowerIsLyingToYou: Why does the New World Translation sound like the translators utilized a Greek-English dictionary on Google?
The avant-garde 5 translators of the New World Translation had an united 2 years of college in past biblical language. Read some of the garbage in there, its like they typewritten in greek words in Google Translate and imitated them onto paper and impressed!
Answer by Raging Bull
They actually didn’t even do that much. It was never an attempt to interpret. It was always them serving the interests of the Watchtower, truth be cursed.The NWT translates the Greek word “kyrios” as “Jehovah” more than 25 times in the New Testament (Mt 3:3, Lk 2:9, Jn 1:23, Acts 21:14, Rom 12:19, Col 1:10, 1Thess 5:2, 1Pet 1:25, Rev 4:8, etc.). Why is the word “Jehovah” interpreted when it does not come out in the Greek text? Why is the NWT not accordant in interpreting kyrios (kurion) as “Jehovah” in Rom 10:9, 1Cor 12:3, Phil 2:11, 2Thess 2:1, and Rev 22:21 (see Gr-Engl Interlinear)? The Watchtower Society teaches that the 144,000 of Rev 7:4 is to be taken literally. If chapter 7 of Revelation is to be taken literally, where then does the Bible state that the 144,000 will come from? (See Rev 7:5- 8). HINT: It ain’t any Watchtower organizationThe NWT translates the Greek word “esti” as “is” in almost every instance in the New Testament (Mt 26:18, 38, Mk 14:44, Lk 22:38, etc.). See Greek-English Interlinear. Why does the NWT translate this Greek word as “means” in Mt 26:26-28, Mk 14:22-24, and Lk 22:19? Why the inconsistency in the translation of the word “esti”? If the NWT was consistent and translated the Greek word “esti” as “is” in these verses, what would these verses say? # If Christians are oppressed for the sake of Jehovah’s name, why did Christ state the first Christians that they would be oppressed for the sake of his (Jesus’) name instead of Jehovah’s (Mt 24:9, Mk 13:13, Lk 21:12, 17, Jn 15:21, and Acts 9:16)?# In Col 1:15-17, the NWT inserts the word “other” 4 times even though it is not in the avant-garde Greek (see Gr-Engl interlinear). Why is the word “other” infixed? How would these verses scan if the word “other” had not been infixed?# In 2Pet 1:1, the NWT inserts the word “the”. Why is it inserted? How would the verse read if the word “the” was not inserted? What does scripture say about appending words to the Bible? (See Prov 30:5-6)
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